Almost nothing in economics is a single random variable. A portfolio is a sum, a sample mean is a sum, total demand is a sum. This lesson shows what happens to the average and the spread when random variables are added and weighted, why that makes spreading your money around a good idea, and then proves, in a line each, three bounds that hold for every distribution: Markov, Chebyshev and the law of large numbers. It ends with Jensen’s inequality, the reason a person who dislikes risk turns down a fair gamble.
Take two random variables X and Y and form the weighted sum aX + bY. Two rules cover everything, and they behave very differently.
The mean rule holds without any condition on X and Y. The variance rule has a cross term, and for independent variables that term is zero, leaving Var(aX + bY) = a²Var(X) + b²Var(Y). Note what the squares do: the variance of a difference X − Y of independent variables is Var(X) + Var(Y), not the difference of the variances. Subtracting a random quantity never makes the total steadier. For n independent draws with common mean μ and variance σ², the sum has mean nμ and variance nσ², and the mean has mean μ and variance σ² ÷ n.
In a past paper (CUET 2023): if X has mean 10 and variance 100, then Var(5X + 10) = 25 × 100 = 2,500. The shift of 10 has no effect on the spread, and the multiplier is squared. The claim that Var(aX + b) = Var(X) is the mistake the question sets as a trap.
A portfolio that puts weight w in one asset and 1 − w in another is a weighted sum of two returns, so the rule above applies, and the covariance between the two assets decides how much risk the mix removes. Perfectly correlated assets give no relief. Independent ones give a lot. This is the mathematics behind “do not put all your eggs in one basket”.
The portfolio return is R = wR₁ + (1 − w)R₂. From the rule for combinations, Var(aX + bY) = a²Var X + b²Var Y + 2ab Cov(X, Y), with a = w, b = 1 − w and Cov = ρσ₁σ₂. Expectations always add, but variances add only after the covariance term.
If the returns are uncorrelated (ρ = 0) and both assets have σ = 10, the 50-50 mix has variance 2 × (½)² × 100 = 50, so its standard deviation is 10 ÷ √2 = 7.07: risk falls with no sacrifice of average return.
If they are perfectly correlated (ρ = 1), the variance is (wσ₁ + (1 − w)σ₂)², the standard deviation is the plain weighted average (10 here), and mixing buys nothing. If they are perfectly opposed (ρ = −1), the standard deviation is |wσ₁ − (1 − w)σ₂|, which is zero when w = σ₂ ÷ (σ₁ + σ₂): risk is removed entirely (0 at 50-50 here).
Differentiate the variance with respect to w and set the slope to zero:
In terms of the covariance c = ρσ₁σ₂ this is w* = (σ₂² − c) ÷ (σ₁² + σ₂² − 2c). The denominator is Var(R₁ − R₂), which is positive, so the second derivative is positive and this is a minimum. For variances 0.07 and 0.05 and covariance 0.04 (IIT JAM 2023): w* = (0.05 − 0.04) ÷ (0.07 + 0.05 − 0.08) = 0.25.
Move the correlation from 1 down to −1 and watch the curve sag away from the dashed line. For σ₁ = 20 and σ₂ = 10 and ρ = 0 the least-risk weight on the riskier asset is 20%, and with ρ = 0.5 it is 0%: when the assets move together the safe one has to carry more of the load.
For a few distributions, the sum of independent variables from the family is again in the family, so its whole distribution is known, not just its mean and variance. These are the reproductive properties, and they all follow from the product rule for moment generating functions in the MGF derivation.
| Independent variables | Their sum |
|---|---|
| Normal N(μ₁, σ₁²) and N(μ₂, σ₂²) | N(μ₁ + μ₂, σ₁² + σ₂²). Also for any weighted combination. |
| Poisson with means λ₁ and λ₂ | Poisson with mean λ₁ + λ₂ |
| Binomial (n₁, p) and (n₂, p), the same p | Binomial (n₁ + n₂, p). Not closed if the p’s differ. |
| Gamma with shapes α₁, α₂ and the same rate | Gamma with shape α₁ + α₂. Exponentials add up to a gamma. |
| Chi-square with k₁ and k₂ degrees of freedom | Chi-square with k₁ + k₂ degrees of freedom |
Lesson 5 stated Chebyshev’s inequality. Here it is proved, in the order that makes it easy: a bound from the mean alone, then one from the mean and variance, then a statement about sample means.
Split E(X) into the part where X is below a and the part where it is at least a. The first part is at least 0 because X ≥ 0. In the second, every value of X is at least a:
If mean household income is ₹30,000, then at most 1/3 of households can earn ₹90,000 or more, because otherwise they alone would push the mean above ₹30,000. No assumption about the shape of the income distribution was needed. The bound is met exactly by a variable that is 0 with probability 0.9 and 10 with probability 0.1 (mean 1, a = 10).
(X − μ)² is never negative and has mean σ². The event |X − μ| ≥ kσ is the same event as (X − μ)² ≥ k²σ². Apply Markov with a = k²σ²:
At least 75% of any distribution lies within two standard deviations of its mean, and at least 8/9 within three, whatever its shape.
The sample mean has mean μ and variance σ² ÷ n (the standard error lesson). Apply Chebyshev to X̄ with deviation ε = k·σ/√n:
With σ = 20, ε = 2 and n = 1,000 the bound is 400 ÷ (1,000 × 4) = 0.1. For any fixed ε, the chance that the sample mean is off by that much falls to zero as n grows: this is what it means for X̄ to be a consistent estimator of μ.
These bounds use only a mean, or a mean and a variance, so they are safe for every distribution and sharp for none. With n = 100 and σ = 20, Chebyshev bounds P(|X̄ − μ| ≥ 4) by 400 ÷ (100 × 16) = 0.25, while the central limit theorem says it is about 2(1 − Φ(2)) = 0.046. Use the bounds when the distribution is unknown, and the normal approximation when it is reasonable. The lab shows the gap for five distributions.
Each bound trades information for safety. With only a mean and X ≥ 0, Markov gives a weak but certain limit. Add a variance and Chebyshev tightens it. Add the whole distribution, and you can compute the tail exactly or approximate it with the normal curve. The less you know, the more conservative the guarantee.
Average first and then apply a function, or apply the function and then average? For a straight line the answers agree. For a curve they differ in a fixed direction, and that direction is the content of Jensen’s inequality. It explains why a risk-averse person refuses a fair gamble, and why the sample standard deviation underestimates σ.
Let μ = E(X) and draw the tangent to g at μ. A convex function never dips below it, so for every x
The inequality holds at every value of X, so it holds on average. The expectation of the right side is g(μ) + g′(μ)(E X − μ) = g(μ) + 0:
For the gamble of ₹0 or ₹100 thousand with equal chance and u(x) = √x, E u = 0.5 × 0 + 0.5 × 10 = 5, while u(50) = 7.07. A sure ₹25 thousand gives √25 = 5, so the gamble is worth only ₹25 thousand to this person, a premium of ₹25 thousand.
Definitions and one-step problems. Most CUET and UGC NET questions sit here.
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