In a log-log regression, the coefficient on logPx directly IS the price elasticity of demand: here, β^=−1.543 (NOT the standard error 2.345, which rules out option (D) immediately — the standard error is not the elasticity itself).
Testing significance: t=SE(β^)β^=2.345−1.543≈−0.658.
Since ∣t∣≈0.658 is far below the conventional critical value (~1.96 for a 5% two-tailed test, or even ~1 as a very loose rule of thumb), the price elasticity coefficient is not statistically significant — we cannot reject the null hypothesis that the true price elasticity is zero, given this data.
(A) is unsupported since we can't even confidently say the coefficient is non-zero, let alone characterize its magnitude as 'highly elastic.' (B) is about the income coefficient's sign (which is positive, 1.123>0, indicating a NORMAL, not inferior, good) — the reverse of what's stated.
Therefore the answer is (C).
The trap: (A) the demand for good X is highly elastic
The coefficient magnitude (−1.543) does look 'elastic' at face value (greater than 1 in absolute value), tempting students to pick (A) without checking whether that estimate is even statistically distinguishable from zero given its very large standard error — a large point estimate with an even larger standard error is not reliable evidence of a real effect.