This is the classic omitted variable bias relationship between a 'short' regression (2) and a 'long' regression (1). The exact algebraic relationship is:
δ^1=β^1+β^2⋅π^1
where π^1 is the coefficient from regressing x2 on x1 (which is proportional to Cov(x1,x2)).
For δ^1=β^1 exactly (as observed), we need the extra term β^2⋅π^1=0. This product is zero whenever either β^2=0 or π^1=0 (equivalently Cov(x1,x2)=0 in-sample) — or both. Neither condition alone is necessary; either one alone is sufficient.
So we cannot conclude specifically that only (ii) holds, or specifically that only (iii) holds — what we CAN conclude is that at least one of them (possibly both) must hold. Statement (i), about Cov(x1,y), isn't directly implicated by this specific algebraic relationship at all.
Therefore the answer is (C): Either (ii) or (iii) or both are true.
The trap: (B) Only (ii) is true
Students who recall 'omitted variable bias is zero when the omitted variable's coefficient is zero' may focus only on condition (ii) and miss that condition (iii) — the omitted variable being uncorrelated with the included regressor — is an equally valid, independent sufficient condition for the same observed outcome, since either one alone (not necessarily both, and not necessarily specifically one) can produce identical coefficients.